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Archive for the ‘Combined Defence Services - CDS’ Category
Combined Defence Services Examination (I), 2006
Exam Date: 19-Feb-2006
Details:
The Union Public Service Commission will hold the Combined Defence Services Examination (I), 2006 op 19th February, 2006 for admission to Indian Military Academy, Naval Academy and Air Force Academy for the Courses commencing in January, 2007 and Officers Training Academy, Chennai for the Course commencing in April, 2007. For details regarding the Eligibility Conditions, Syllabus and Scheme of the examination, Centres of examination, Guidelines for filling up application form etc.
Exam States: All India
Important Dates:
Address and Last Date for Receipt of Applications: All applications must reach the “Secretary, Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi -110069″ either by hand or by Post/ Speed Post or by Courier, on or before the 17th October, 2005. However, in respect of candidates residing abroad or in certain remote localities specified in the Notice the last date for receipt of applications by Post/Speed Post only (not by Hand or by Courier) is 24th October, 2005.
Posted in Combined Defence Services - CDS, General, UPSC | 2 Comments »
Disqualification for Admission to the Training Course :
Candidates who were admitted to an earlier course at the National Defence Academy, Indian Military Academy, Air Force Flying College, Naval Academy, Goa, Officers Training Academy, Chennai but were removed there from on disciplinary ground will not be considered for admission to the Indian Military Academy, Naval Academy, Air Force Academy or for grant of Short Service Commission in the Army.
Candidates who were previously withdrawn from the Indian Military Academy for lack of officer-like qualities will not be admitted to the Indian Military Academy.
Candidates who were previously selected as Special Entry Naval Cadets but were withdrawn from the National Defence Academy or from Naval Training Establishments for lack of Officer-like qualities will not be eligible for admission to the Indian Navy.
Candidates who were withdrawn from Indian Military Academy, Officers Training Academy, NCC and Graduate course for lack of Officer-like qualities will not be considered for grant of Short Service Commission in the Army.
Candidates who were previously withdrawn from the NCC and Graduates course for lack of Officer-like qualities will not be admitted to the Indian Military Academy.
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Eligibility Conditions
The following are the eligibility criteria for the application of Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) Examination
- Nationality
- Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status
- Educational Qualifications
- Physical Standards
b>Nationality
A candidate must either be :
- a Citizen of India, or
- a subject of Bhutan, or
- a subject of Nepal, or
- a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before the 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, or
- a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka and East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.
longing to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.
Certificate of eligibility will, however, not be necessary in the case of candidates who are Gorkha subjects of Nepal.
A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination provisionally subject to the necessary certificate being given to him by the Govt. before declaration of result by UPSC.
Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status :
For IMA-Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd July, 1981 and not later than 1st July, 1986 only are eligible.
For Naval Academy-Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd July, 1983 (2nd July, 1981 in case of Naval Wing ‘C’ Certificate holders) and not later than 1st July, 1986 only are eligible.
For Air Force Academy-Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd July, 1982 and not later than 1st July, 1986 only are eligible.
For Officers Training Academy-Male candidates (married or unmarried) born not earlier than 2nd July, 1980 and not later than 1st July, 1986 only are eligible.
The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University which extract must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination certificate. These certificates are required to be submitted only after the declaration of the result of the written part of the examination. No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted.
The expression Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the alternative certificates mentioned above.
Sometimes the Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate does not show the date of birth, or only shows the age by completed years or completed years and months. In such cases a candidate must send in addition to the attested/certified copy of Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate an attested/certified copy of a certificate from the Headmaster/Principal of the Institution from where he passed the Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination showing the date of his birth or exact age as recorded in the Admission Register of the Institution.
Educational Qualifications :
For I.M.A. and Officers Training Academy-Degree of a recognised University or equivalent.
For Naval Academy : B.Sc. (with Physics & Mathematics) or Bachelor of Engineering.
For Air Force Academy : Degree of Recognized University (with Physics and Mathematics at 10+2 level) or Bachelor of Engineering.
Graduates with first choice as Army/Navy/Air Force are to submit proof of graduation provisional certificates on the date of commencement of the SSB Interview at the SSB.
Note:
- Candidates, who have yet to pass their degree examination will be eligible only if they are studying in the final year of degree examination. Those candidates who have yet to qualify in the final year Degree Examination and are allowed to appear in the UPSC Examination should note that this is only a special concession given to them. They are required to submit proof of passing the Degree examination by the prescribed date and no request for extending this date will be entertained on the grounds of late conduct of basic qualifying University Examination, delay in declaration of results or any other ground whatsoever.
- Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any type of commission in the Defence Services shall not be eligible for admision to the examination and if admitted, their candidature will be cancelled.
- In the event of Air Force candidates being suspended from Flying training for failure to learn flying, they would be absorbed in the Navigation/Administration/Logistic Branch of the IAF. This will be subject to availability of vacancies and fulfilling the laid down qualitative requirements (including 60% in graduation)
tandards :
ndidate recommended by the Services Selection Board will under go a medical examination by a Board of Service Medical Officers, Only those candidates will be admitted to the Academy who are declared fit by the Medical Board. However, the candidates declared unfit will be intimated by the President of the Medical Board and procedure for request for an Appeal Medical Board (AMB) will also be intimated to the candidate.
Candidates who are unfit may apply for Appeal Medical Board (AMB) to be completed within 42 days of SMB and may request for Review Medical Board (RMB) within one day of completion of Appeal Medical Board.
Candidates declared unfit by AMB will be intimated by the President AMB about procedure of challenging the findings of AMB. The candidates will also be intimated that holding Review Medical Board (RMB) will be granted at the discretion of DGAFMS based on the merit of the case and that RMB is not a matter of right. Candidates shall automatically report to the hospital opted by them on any working day, keeping in view, the time taken by Postal authorities to deliver their Medical document at the Hospital for medical examination. No call shall be given by the opted hospital and no correspondence in this regard shall be entertained. The candidate must be physically fit according to the prescribed physical standards which are summarised below :
- The candidate must be in good physical and mental health and free form any disease/disability which is likely to interfere with the efficient performance of duties.
- There should be no evidence of weak constitution, bodily defects or over weight.
- The minimum acceptable height is 157.5 cms. (157 cms for Navy and 162.5 cms for Air Force). For Gorkhas and individuals belonging to hills of north Eastern region of India, Garhwali and Kumaon, the Minimum acceptable height will be 5 cms less. In case of candidates from Lakshadweep, the minimum acceptable height can be reduced by 2 cms.
These concessions are not applicable for Navy and Air Force. Height and weight standards are given below :
| Height and Weight Standards |
Height in Centimetres (Without shoes) |
Weight in Kgs. |
| cms |
18 years |
20 years |
22 years |
| 152 |
44* |
46 |
47 |
| 155 |
46 |
48@ |
49 |
| 157 |
47 |
49 |
50 |
| 160 |
48 |
50 |
51 |
| 162 |
50 |
52 |
52 |
| 165 |
52 |
53 |
55 |
| 168 |
53 |
55 |
57 |
| 170 |
55 |
57 |
58 |
| 173 |
57 |
59 |
60 |
| 175 |
59 |
61 |
62 |
| 178 |
60 |
62 |
63 |
| 180 |
63 |
64 |
65 |
| 183 |
65 |
67 |
67 |
| 185 |
67 |
69 |
70 |
| 188 |
70 |
71 |
72 |
| 190 |
72 |
73 |
74 |
| 193 |
74 |
76 |
77 |
| 195 |
77 |
78 |
78 |
*45 for Navy @ 47 for Navy
A + 10% (for Navy) departure from the average weight given in the Table above is to be considered within normal limit. However, in individuals with heavy bones and broad built as well as individuals with thin but otherwise healthy this may be relaxed to some extent on merit.
The acceptable weight for Air Force candidates will be + 10% of the average weight given above.
- In your own interest your are advised to undergo a preliminary medical check up for wax in ears, refractory error of eyes, fungal infection of skin Eosinophitia before reporting for the SSB interview.
- Chest should be well developed. The minimum range of expansion after full inspiration should be 5 cms. The measurement will be taken with a tape so adjusted that its lower edge should touch the nipple in front and the upper part of the tape should touch the lower angle of the shoulder blades behind. X-Ray of the chest is compulsory and will be taken to rule out any disease of the chest.
- There should be no disease of bones and joints of the body.
- A candidate should have no past history of mental breakdown or fits.
- The hearing should be normal. A candidate should be able to hear a forced whisper with each ear at a distance of 610 cms. in a quiet room. There should be no evidence of present or past disease of the ear, nose and throat.
- There should be no sign of functional or organic disease of the heart and blood vessel. Blood pressure should be normal.
- The muscles of abdomen should be well developed and there should be no enlargement of liver or spleen. Any evidence of disease of internal organs of the abdomen will be a cause for rejection.
- Un-operated hernias will make a candidate unfit. If operated, this should have been done at least 1 year prior to the present examination and healing is completed.
- There should be no hydrocele, varicocele or piles.
- Urine examination will be done and any abnormality, if detected will be a cause for rejection.
- Any disease of the skin which is likely to cause disability or disfigurement will also be a cause for rejection.
- A candidate should be able to read 6/6 in a distant vision chart with each eye with or without glasses (For navy and Air Force without glasses only) Myopia should not be more than 3.5D and hypermetropia not more than 3.5D including Astigmatism. Internal examination of the eye will be done by means of ophthalmoscope to rule out any disease of the eye. A candidate must have good binocular vision. The colour vision standard will be CP-3. A candidate should be able to recognise red and green colours.
Radial keratotomy : Candidates who have undergone or have the evidence of having undergone Radial Keratotomy, to improve the visual acuity, will be permanently rejected for all the three services. Candidates who have undergone Laser Surgery for correction of refractive error are also not acceptable to defence services.
The candidates for Navy should have the following vision standards :
Distant vision 6/12 , 6/12, Correctable to 6/6 Near Vision N-5 each eye
Colour Vision CP-1 by MLT
Myopia is not to exceed 0.75 dioptres and hypermetropia not more than 1.50 dioptres in the better eye and 2.50 dioptres in the worse eye.
Ocular Muscle Balance
Hetrophoria with the Maddox Rod Test must not exceed.
- At 6 metres Exophoria 8 prism dioptres, Esophoria 8 prism dioptres, Hyperphoria 1 prism diop-tres.
- at 30 cm Exophoria 16 prism dioptres, Esophoria 6 prism dioptres, Hyperphoria 1 prism dioptres.
dates should have sufficient number of natural and sound teeth. A minimum of 14 dental points will be acceptable. When 32 teeth are present, the total dental points are 22. A candidate should not be suffering form severe pyorrhoea.
- X-Ray examination of the chest will include the lower part of cervical spine for presence of cervical ribs. X-Ray examination of other parts of spine will be taken if the SMB considers it necessary.
“i”>
Anthropometric measurements acceptable for Air Force are as follows :
| Height |
162.5 cms |
| Leg Length |
Min. 99 cms. & Max. 120 cms. |
| Thigh Length |
Max. 64 cms. |
| Sitting Height |
Min. 81.5 cms. & Max 96 cms. |
X-ray of Cervical and Lumbosacral spine will be carried out. The following conditions detected in the X-ray will be disqualifying :
- Granulomatous disease of Spine.
- Arthritis spondylosis.
- More than mild Kyphosis/Lordosis, Scolosis more than 15 by Cobb’s method will be cause for rejection.
- Spondy lolysis thesis spondyloysis
- Herniated Nucleus Pulposus.
- Compression fracture of Vertebra.
- Scheuermanns Disease
- Cervical Ribs with demonstrable neurological or circulatory deficit.
- Presence of Schmorl’s node at more than one level.
- Atlanto- occipital and Atlanto-axial anomalies.
- Incomplete Sacralisation unilateral or Bilateral.
- Any other abnormality, if so considered by specialist.
- Spinabifida at SV1 and LV5 level alone.
ee).
X-Ray of Chest is compulsory.
Vision
Distant Vision 6/6, in one eye and 6/9 Correctable to 6/6 Near Vision N-5 each eye Colour Vision CP-1 (MLT)
Manifest Hypermetropia Must not exceed+2.00 Dsp ‘Myopia-NIL’ & +0.75DSph ±0.75 DSph.
Ocular Muscle Balance
Hetrophoria with the Maddox Rod Test must not exceed :
possess good binocular vision (fusion and stereposis with good amplitude and depth)
Hearing Standards
- Speech test : Whispered hearing 610 cms. each ear.
- Audiometric Test : Audiometric loss should not exceed + 20 db in frequencies between 250 Hz and 4000 Hz.
e ECG and EEG should be within normal limits.
The Medical standards for candidates of Naval Aviation Branch will be the same as for flying duties of Air Force.
Detection of any disability in the course of a special test carried out prescribed for one service, may render the candidate unfit for any other service(s), if so considered as disqualifying by Medical Board.
Physical Conditioning :- Prospective Candidates are advised to keep themselves in good Physical condition by following the under mentioned routine :-
- Running : 2 to 4 Km. in 15 minutes
- Skipping
- Pushups & Sit-ups : Minimum 20 each
- Chin Ups : Minimum 08
- Rope Climbing : 3 to 4 meters
Posted in Combined Defence Services - CDS | 2 Comments »
Candidates must use only the form supplied with the information Brochure purchased from any of the designated Head Post Offices/Post Offices listed in Appendix III. Form should be purchased from designated post offices only and not from any other agency. Candidates must use the form supplied with the Information Brochure only and they should in no case use photocopy/reproduction/unauthorisedly printed copy of the Form. The form will NOT be supplied by the Commissions office.
The application form must be filled in by the candidates in their own hand. Since this form will be processed on computerised machines, candidates should exercise due care in handling and filling up the application form. They should use HB pencil only to darken the circles. For writing in the boxes, they should use blue or black pen.
Since the entries made by the candidates by darkening the circles will be taken into account while processing the applications on computerised machines, they should make these entries very carefully and accurately. Entries in the boxes are meant for confirmatory purposes and these should also, therefore, be made correctly. There should be no variation between the entries made by the candidate by darkening the circles and those written in the accompanying boxes.
Candidates should ensure that the signatures appended by them in all the places viz. in their application form, Attendance List etc. and in all the correspondence with the Commission, should be identical and there should be no variation of any kind. If any variation is found in the signature appended by him at different places, his candidature will be liable to be cancelled by the Commission.
No change in the entries made in original application form will be allowed under any circumstances.
The candidates are advised in their own interest to ensure that the applications reach the Commissions Office on or before the closing date. Applications received in the Commissions Office after the closing date will not be considered.
While filling in his application form, the candidate should carefully decide about his choice for the centre for the examination. More than one application from a candidate giving different centres will not be accepted in any case. Even if a candidate sends more than one completed application, the Commission will accept only one application at their discretion and the Commissions decision in the matter shall be final.
On the Acknowledgement Card, the candidates should write their application form No. (as printed below the bar code on the form) and the name of examination viz. Combined Defence Services Examination (II), 2004. They should also write clearly and legibly their mailing address on the Acknowledgement Card. A postage stamp of Rs. 6/- (Rupees Six) should be affixed on the card. The Acknowledgement Card should not be stapled or pinned or tagged or pasted with the Application Form.
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| Name of the Course |
No. of Vacancies |
| Indian Military Academy Dehradun 119th Course Commencing in July, 2005 [includes 32 vacancies reserved for NCC C Certificate (Army Wing) holders] |
250 |
| Naval Academy Goa-Course commencing in July, 2005 Executive (General service) [including Six reserved for NCC C Certificate holders (Naval Wing)] |
20 |
| Air Force Academy, Hyderabad (Pre-Flying) Training Course commencing in July,2005 i.e. No.178th F(P) Course |
47 |
| Officers Training Academy, Chennai (Madras) 82nd SSC Course commencing in October 2005 |
175 |
Posted in Combined Defence Services - CDS | 3 Comments »
The Competitive examination comprises:
Written examination as shown in para 2 below.
Interview for intelligence and personality test (vide Part B of this Appendix) of such candidates as may be called for interview at one of the Services Selection Centres.
The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follows:
For Admission to Indian Military Academy, Naval Academy and Air Force Academy.
| Subject |
Duration |
Maximum Marks |
| English |
2 Hours |
100 |
| General Knowledge |
2 Hours |
100 |
| Elementary Mathematics |
2 Hours |
100 |
For Admission to Officers Training Academy
| Subject |
Duration |
Maximum Marks |
| English |
2 Hours |
100 |
| General Knowledge |
2 Hours |
100 |
The maximum marks allotted to the written examination and to the interviews will be equal for each course i.e. the maximum marks allotted to the written examination and to the interviews will be 300,300,300 and 200 each for admission to the Indian Military Academy, Naval Academy, Air Force Academy and Officers Training Academy respectively.
The papers in all the subjects will consist of objective type questions only. The question papers (test booklets) of general knowledge and elementary mathematics will be set in bilingually in hindi as well as english .
In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the metric system of Weights and Measures only will be set.
Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write answers for them.
The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects of the examination.
The candidates are not permitted to use calculator for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They should not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall.
Posted in Combined Defence Services - CDS | 8 Comments »
The examination will be held at the following Centres :-
Agartala, Ahmedabad, Aizawl, Allahabad, Bangalore, Bareilly, Bhopal, Chandigarh, Chennai, Cuttack, Dehradun, Delhi, Dharwar, Dispur, Gangtok, Hyderabad, Imphal, Itanagar, Jaipur, Jammu, Jorhat, Kochi, Kohima, Kolkota, Lucknow, Madurai, Mumbai, Nagpur, Panaji (Goa), Patna, Port Blair, Raipur, Ranchi, Sambalpur, Shillong, Shimla, Srinagar, Thiruvananthapuram, Tirupati, Udaipur and Vishakhapatnam.
The centres and the date of holding the examination as mentioned above are liable to be changed at the discretion of the Commission. While every effort will be made to allot the candidates to the centre of their choice for examination, the Commission may, at their discretion allot a different centre to a candidate, when circumstances so warrant. Candidates admitted to the examination will be informed of the time table and place or places of examination.
Candidates should note that no request for change of centre will normally be granted. When a candidate, however, desires a change in centre from the one he had indicated in his application form for the Examination, he must send a letter addressed to the Secretary, Union Public Service Commission, giving full justification as to why he desires a change in centre. Such requests will be considered on merits but requests received after the 24th June, 2004 will not be entertained under any circumstances.
Note:
While filling in his application form, the candidates should carefully decide about his choice for the centre for the examination. More than one application from a candidate giving different centres will not be accepted in any case. Even if a candidate sends more than one completed application, the Commission will accept only one application at their discretion and the Commission’s decision in the matter shall be final.
If any candidate appears at a Centre other than the one indicated by the Commission in his Admission Certificate, the papers of such a candidate will not be valued and his candidature will be liable to cancellation
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